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Oct 22, 2012 at 15:37 answer added Benjamin Steinberg timeline score: 3
Oct 17, 2010 at 0:18 answer added Aeryk timeline score: 0
Oct 16, 2010 at 20:53 comment added zhoraster @Mike Spivey: Misunderstood the word "page". Pages 116-117.
Oct 16, 2010 at 20:51 comment added zhoraster @Mike Spivey: algo.inria.fr/flajolet/Publications/book.pdf
Oct 15, 2010 at 21:14 comment added Mike Spivey @zhoraster: What page is it on? I found the Newmann & Shepp problem but not the generalization the OP requests.
Oct 15, 2010 at 7:51 comment added zhoraster By "his" web page I meant Flajolet's :)
Oct 15, 2010 at 7:49 comment added zhoraster The good reading is Flajolet, Sedgewick "Analytic Combinatorics" available freely on his web page. This problem is among thousands examples solved in his book.
Oct 13, 2010 at 6:14 answer added Mike Spivey timeline score: 3
Oct 13, 2010 at 2:09 comment added Herman I think I've figured out how to calculate the answer, but it's 4am in the morning already, I'll post it tomorrow. Thanks for the help, if anyone else figures it out I'll be happy to give them the rep.
Oct 12, 2010 at 22:37 history edited Herman CC BY-SA 2.5
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Oct 12, 2010 at 22:32 comment added Andrew D. King You should delete the example. It's very misleading.
Oct 12, 2010 at 21:59 comment added Herman I see I might have stated it badly earlier, the 2nd edit is the problem I actually wish to solve. So my original question should actually read How many sample trials are needed to collect at least $m$ coupons at least $k$ times? - and by that I mean any $m$ coupons. My example is misleading as well, sorry about that. The question is much more easily stated as a ball-and-bins problem, as I later realized.
Oct 12, 2010 at 21:53 comment added JBL Your Edit #2 appears to be a different problem: as stated, you want the first $m$ bins to have at least $k$ balls, right?
Oct 12, 2010 at 21:40 answer added mhum timeline score: 2
Oct 12, 2010 at 21:08 history edited Herman CC BY-SA 2.5
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Oct 12, 2010 at 20:00 comment added Herman I added an edit that hopefully explains the difference.
Oct 12, 2010 at 19:58 history edited Herman CC BY-SA 2.5
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Oct 12, 2010 at 19:41 comment added Orange Maybe this question is confusing since it is not clear to me why we are not just considering n to be the number of coupons in the set m and using 1/N as the probability of drawing a specific coupon when N is the original number of coupons. Follow the proof of the generalization putting 1/N whenever 1/n was used.
Oct 12, 2010 at 19:21 history asked Herman CC BY-SA 2.5