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Mar 30, 2022 at 0:28 comment added Arbiter Of course it wont hold for everything. We should ask for some form of uniform bound $g_n$ (independent of $t$ and summable) on the $|f_n(t)|$, like in the assumption of the dominated convergence theorem. That is my question, do we have an analogue of the dominated convergence theorem here?
Mar 29, 2022 at 21:39 comment added Michael Greinecker Doesn't that already fail for the usual Banach limit on $\ell_\infty$? Let $\mathbf{1}$ be the constant sequence with value $1$ and let $\mathbf{1}_n$ be the sequence with a $1$ in the $n$th place and all other entries $0$. Then $\mathbf{1}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \mathbf{1}_n$. But $L(\mathbf{1})=1\neq 0=\sum_{n=1}^\infty L(\mathbf{1}_n)$. The point is that Banach limits coincide with the usual limits when they exist.
Mar 29, 2022 at 21:14 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
removed capitals from title
Mar 29, 2022 at 19:31 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
Minor Math Jaxing
S Mar 29, 2022 at 19:22 review First questions
Mar 29, 2022 at 19:39
S Mar 29, 2022 at 19:22 history asked Arbiter CC BY-SA 4.0