Conway seems to makehere makes clear that you could, if you wanted, use the surreal numbers for non-standard analysis. This is, because they are a real-closed field and thus a model for the theory of all elementary (first-order) statements about the reals. Conway does also make the point, in the last two sentences, that he doesn't view nonstandard analysis as the ultimate application of the surreals. But, for the sake of curiosity, I'm quite interested in understanding how you could do what Conway is hinting at above.
TheHowever, the statement that you couldcan use the surreals for nonstandard analysis would seem to beis really quite strong, and much stronger than just saying it's athe field being real-closed field. For instance,The real meat of the claim being made is the expression $f(x + 1/\omega)$ even exists at all. This would demand some kind of "transfer principle" for $f(x)$ to the surreals. Just being real-closed wouldn't be enough for this: the real algebraic numbers are real-closed closed, but that doesn't mean that for somewe can use the real algebraic numbers for nonstandard analysis. But Conway says this is "of course" possible with the surreals.
So the main question is: how would such a transfer principle work?
Or an even stronger question: the existence of the hyperreals requires the ultrafilter lemma. There is much later research showing that given the right set theory, one can show that the surreals are isomorphic to a proper-class sized ultrapower of the reals. But the surreals don't require the ultrafilter lemma at all, and yet Conway still makes that claim. It would seem to be possible to just go through the motions with taking the nonstandard derivative of, for instance, $x$$\frac{\exp(x + 1/\omega) - \exp(x)}{1/\omega} = \exp{x}\left(\frac{\exp^{1/\omega} - 1}{1/\omega}\right) \approx \exp(x)$, treating $\sin(x)$ is also$1/\omega$ as a formal expression satisfying the first-order properties of the reals and deriving $\exp(x)$ as the closest real algebraic number to the result, and none of this seems to have required any kind of ultrafilter to be certain that $1/\omega$ exists to begin with as it does with the hyperreals. But we do
I've tried to keep this short but there is an enormous amount of subtlety to this question, so I will go into some of that below.
Some later results have clarified the corresponding result forrelationship between the surreals and hyperreals, whichso some additional detail regarding what is why webeing asked is probably necessary.
There has been a little bit of prior discussion about this, for instance in this post, where it is talked about the much more modern result that the surreals are isomorphic to the proper-class sized ultrapower of the reals. These isomorphisms can be thought of as various ways to transfer real functions like $\sin$ to begin with to take nonstandard derivativesthe surreal numbers. So Conway would appear to be asserting an analogous "transfer principle"in one sense, the answer is yes, a transfer principle exists in some formtheory. But the pitfall with this approach is that would let some general extensioneverything requires ultrafilters, and is non-constructive, and there is no canonical choice of isomorphism. This is very different from the way that the surreals are built, which do not require ultrafilters.
On the other hand, Conway's book was written before any of the above results were published $f(x + 1/\omega)$ for arbitrary(with possibly an exception regarding one paper of Keisler). So partly the question is informal $f$- what did Conway have in mind? But the other part of it is to formally ask if there is some other way to do this that doesn't involve this very particular method of using these isomorphisms, or even exist forto use ultrafilters at all. For instance, what if we don't have the surrealsultrafilter lemma? Then the hyperreals don't necessarily exist at all, in his expression abovebut we can still build the surreals, which don't even require choice. (OrEven if he doesn't mean this Iwe don't know how elsehave the ultrafilter lemma, can we still just go ahead anyway and say that $\frac{f(x + 1/\omega) - f(x)}{1/\omega}$ is a well-defined expression, and look for the closest real number to interpret it.), using some other way to derive a transfer principle?
So the main question is: how would such a transfer principle work? Even in a wishy-washy non-constructible sense. If you're using an ultrapower The other part of the reals, everythingquestion is rather straightforward: everyadmittedly a soft question, but still well worth answering. The ultrafilter construction makes it very easy to see how such a transfer principle would work. Every hyperreal is a set of reals (or an equivalence class thereof), and to transfer any first-order predicate to some hyperreal, you simply ask the predicate of every real in the set and see if it's true of "most" of them (where "most" means "in the ultrafilter"). Thus you have a real-closed field, a "transfer principle," and all of that. ButConway, on the other hand, has a very interesting way of building up the surreals in his book which is somewhat agnostic to the choice of set theory, using "birthdays," "left and right sets," etc. I am curious if there is some way to get a similar result usinginterpret Conway's assertion regarding the languageexistence of $f(x+1/\omega)$ using his own machinery for the surreals, perhaps doing something clever and inductive with birthdays,the left and right sets, and so on?
Some additional details:rather than using these later developments involving isomorphisms with the ultrapower.
ThereThe last subtlety involves a philosophical point that has sometimes been a little bitraised with the topic of prior discussion about thissurreals vs hyperreals, but not quite as directly as this questionit is askingalso worth addressing. ButThere is, for instance see, some debate regarding how functions like Surreal numbers vs. non-standard analysis$\sin$ and $\cos$ should be transferred to the surreals. In theory, where it is talked aboutyou could say that since we have these isomorphisms to the surreals dohyperreals, which have a kind of transfer principle in that they are isomorphic to, these guarantee the proper-class sized ultrapowerexistence of the reals (with many possible isomorphisms), and thus each isomorphism can be thoughtsome kind of as (unconstructably) defining a corresponding way to transferfunction on the surreals with the required first-order properties of reals on the surreal numbers. But also this transfer principle isn't quite as "natural" in the sense that there doesn't seem to be any "standard" choice of isomorphism. The punchline of allsurreals are very tangible in a very constructive sort of this wasway, even though there's this isomorphism in theorywhereas these isomorphisms are typically totally non-constructive, so there is no canonical way to sayuse them to see what $\sin(\omega)$ is, for instanceshould be, if it's positive or even $\omega \bmod 2$negative, etc.
On the other hand, though, it doesn't seem that this is any different from the way the hyperreals work. With those, we haveyou could raise the same problem, which is that all of the ultrafilters are typically non-constructive. And for instance, just like there is some debate about how the $\sin$ function should transfer tophilosophical issue with the surreals, or what $\sin(\omega)$ should behyperreals, because there is also is no real clear answer regarding what $\sin((1,2,3,4,\dotsc))$$\sin((1,2,3,4,...))$ should be, where $(1,2,3,4,\dotsc)$$(1,2,3,4...)$ is a particular hyperreal number - because the. The answer depends on the ultrafilter, which determines what $(1,2,3,4,\dotsc)$$(1,2,3,4...)$ even means to begin with, or what properties it has. So it doesn't really seem like the surreals are any better, or worse off than the hyperreals in this regardif you like, which hyperreal it's referring to.
And yet Conway is making the claim that he is. So there is this subtlety here regardingBut what really constitutes a "transfer principle" that I am hoping to get cleared up. Basically,you can do with the hyperreals, which is part of the appeal is that even though you usually can't quite hold an ultrafilter in the palm of your hand the way you'd like, is you can kind of get a good bit"part of the way there constructivelythere" in a totally constructive manner. You know, for instance, that whatever $\sin((1,2,3,4,\dotsc))$$\sin((1,2,3,4,...))$ is, in some sense it's $(\sin(1), \sin(2), \sin(3), \sin(4), \dotsc)$$(\sin(1), \sin(2), \sin(3), \sin(4), ...)$. Since we don't know what the ultrafilter is we don't know exactly what properties that has, but we do know something: we know that for any ultrafilter this value will not be an integer, for instance, or any rational number. We can also "partly construct" an ultrafilter by constructing one that consistently assigns a membership value to allSo, we have some idea of what the definable subsets of indices, and leavetransferred sin function would have to look like on the undefinable ones open insurreals as a sort of choose-your-ownresult, at least given that $\omega$ is some hypernatural. So even though the ultrafilter is non-adventure approachconstructive, you can at least get "part of the way there" in an entirely constructive manner, which is related topart of what Terry Tao calls "cheap nonstandard analysis"makes the entire thing interesting. And then there are certain models of set theory whichcourse you don't really need to know much more than these few constructive things to actually do have constructible ultrafiltersnonstandard analysis, just kind of happily plodding along formally doing nonstandard derivatives, with the understanding that the ultrafilter handles all of the various pathological, undefinable sets of indices in some logically consistent way or another.
Summarizing, it seems implicit in Conway's assertion that you should also at least be ableSo the last question is if there is some way for us to do this kind of thingsomething similar with the surreals, that is to get "part of the way there" —there," in this sense. That is, to at least have enough constructive "transfer" for us to be sure that the expression $f(1 + 1/\omega)$ even makes sense to beginplay around with. Perhaps part all of my question is not quite so formalthis stuff, but more in the direction of if it's possible to similarly get "part of the way there" but directly using the languageframework of birthdays, left and right sets, etc., and all that stuff that makes the surreal numbers interesting,surreals rather than sort of cheating and just using this isomorphism from the hyperreals. At least that seems like what Conway is suggesting, as it seems that it wasn't until later work by Keisler and then Ehrlichso that it was provenwe can see that the proper class sized ultrapower of the reals and the surreals are isomorphic, if I interpret the above link correctly, but Conway clearly had something in mind$f(1 + 1/\omega)$ even priormakes sense to thatbegin with and play around with it. Something like Terry Tao's "cheap nonstandard analysis", perhaps.