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Mar 10, 2022 at 16:32 comment added Fouad Fahmi Many thanks for the clarifications.
Mar 10, 2022 at 16:12 comment added Kevin Ventullo As Kimball indicated, question (ii) as stated doesn’t make sense because ${\rm Sym}^n$ is not 2-dimensional for $n>1$. I don’t think it is true that ${\rm Sym}^n\overline{\rho}_{f,\ell}(G_{\mathbb{Q}}))$ is absolutely irreducible in general, since the dimension grows with $n$ but there are only finitely many isomorphism classes of characteristic $\ell$ irreducible reps of the finite group ${\rm Image}(\overline{\rho}_{f,\ell})$; in particular there is one of maximal dimension.
Mar 10, 2022 at 15:43 comment added Kevin Ventullo If a 2-dim’l representation is reducible, it is an extension of a 1-dim’l representation by another 1-dim’l representation. That is, it sits in the middle of an exact seq. where the sub and quotient are both 1-dim’l. Since 1-dim’l reps are abelian, this corresponds group theoretically to an exact sequence where the sub and quotient are both abelian. This is basically the definition of solvable.
Mar 10, 2022 at 9:49 comment added Fouad Fahmi Thanks for your answer, could you please provide a reference for the fact about the solvability of the image of a reducible Galois representation? Do you have any thoughts about (ii)? Or how we can deduce directly from $(*)$ that ${\rm Sym}^n\bar{\rho}_{f,\ell|\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_\ell})$ is absolutely irreducible?
Mar 10, 2022 at 9:14 history answered Kevin Ventullo CC BY-SA 4.0