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Mar 18, 2022 at 17:01 comment added Bogdan Grechuk I am sorry, can you please explain why the prime divisor $q$ of $p_a(n)$ must be congruent to a cubic residue modulo $P$? I looked at Shank's paper and this is stated without detailed proof, with just one intermediate step that $q^{(P-1)/3}$ is $1$ mod $P$, which I also do not know why. Am I missing something obvious?
Mar 9, 2022 at 23:40 vote accept Bogdan Grechuk
Mar 9, 2022 at 22:43 answer added Noam D. Elkies timeline score: 30
Mar 9, 2022 at 22:30 comment added Bogdan Grechuk This is the simplest non-trivial example of my earlier question mathoverflow.net/questions/404703/… . I have added this to the question.
Mar 9, 2022 at 22:29 history edited Bogdan Grechuk CC BY-SA 4.0
Motivation added
Mar 9, 2022 at 20:59 history edited Bogdan Grechuk CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
Mar 9, 2022 at 20:31 history asked Bogdan Grechuk CC BY-SA 4.0