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Dec 9, 2022 at 13:51 vote accept Nate River
S Dec 9, 2022 at 13:51 history bounty ended Nate River
S Dec 9, 2022 at 13:51 history notice removed Nate River
Dec 8, 2022 at 22:42 vote accept Nate River
Dec 9, 2022 at 13:51
Dec 8, 2022 at 21:07 answer added Kostya_I timeline score: 1
S Dec 8, 2022 at 12:55 history bounty started Nate River
S Dec 8, 2022 at 12:55 history notice added Nate River Draw attention
Mar 9, 2022 at 15:47 comment added Thomas Kojar follow-up to Kurt: almostsuremath.com/2010/04/13/… but even here we need to use a bit of characteristic.
Mar 9, 2022 at 11:14 comment added Kurt G. Not rigorous but quite intuitive I think: suppose there is a BM $W$ and a predictable process $f$ such that $X_t=\int_0^tf_s\,dW_s$ then $\langle X,X\rangle_t=\int_0^tf^2_s\,ds=t$ which only holds for $f\equiv 1$.
Mar 9, 2022 at 5:29 history asked Nate River CC BY-SA 4.0