Remark. One thing I still find weird about this is that it almost works to give a homomorphism $S_n \to S_3$ as well, by taking $\operatorname{Inj}(3,n)$ instead of $\operatorname{Inj}(2,n)$. It somehow only fails because $S_3$ is not abelian. Replacing $S_3$ by its subgroup $C_3$ does give a homomorphism $S_n \to C_3$, which presumably is trivial. But somehow for $C_2 = S_2$ the map is nontrivial!
R. van Dobben de Bruyn
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R. van Dobben de Bruyn
- 28.7k
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R. van Dobben de Bruyn
- 28.7k
- 3
- 92
- 144