Skip to main content
Notice removed Authoritative reference needed by CommunityBot
Bounty Ended with no winning answer by CommunityBot
deleted 1 character in body
Source Link
Boby
  • 671
  • 4
  • 16

Suppose that for a given $b\in \mathbb{R}$ \begin{align} 0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R}, \end{align}\begin{align} 0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R} \end{align} where $i =\sqrt{-1}$.

Question: How to find a set of general solutions to this equation? I tried to do the Fourier inversion but things didn't work out.

Few details:

  • the integral above is performed in a sense of Cauchy principal value.
  • Note that the division by the imaginary number is not necessary. However, I keep it so that the final solution is real-valued. (At least I think it guarantees that). One can sertaily remove it.

Suppose that for a given $b\in \mathbb{R}$ \begin{align} 0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R}, \end{align} where $i =\sqrt{-1}$.

Question: How to find a set of general solutions to this equation? I tried to do the Fourier inversion but things didn't work out.

Few details:

  • the integral above is performed in a sense of Cauchy principal value.
  • Note that the division by the imaginary number is not necessary. However, I keep it so that the final solution is real-valued. (At least I think it guarantees that). One can sertaily remove it.

Suppose that for a given $b\in \mathbb{R}$ \begin{align} 0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R} \end{align} where $i =\sqrt{-1}$.

Question: How to find a set of general solutions to this equation? I tried to do the Fourier inversion but things didn't work out.

Few details:

  • the integral above is performed in a sense of Cauchy principal value.
  • Note that the division by the imaginary number is not necessary. However, I keep it so that the final solution is real-valued. (At least I think it guarantees that). One can sertaily remove it.
added 1 character in body
Source Link
Boby
  • 671
  • 4
  • 16

Suppose that for a given $b\in \mathbb{R}$ \begin{align} 0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R} \end{align}\begin{align} 0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R}, \end{align} where $i =\sqrt{-1}$.

Question: How to find a set of general solutions to this equation? I tried to do the Fourier inversion but things didn't work out.

Few details:

  • the integral above is performed in a sense of Cauchy principal value.
  • Note that the division by the imaginary number is not necessary. However, I keep it so that the final solution is real-valued. (At least I think it guarantees that). One can sertaily remove it.

Suppose that for a given $b\in \mathbb{R}$ \begin{align} 0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R} \end{align} where $i =\sqrt{-1}$.

Question: How to find a set of general solutions to this equation? I tried to do the Fourier inversion but things didn't work out.

Few details:

  • the integral above is performed in a sense of Cauchy principal value.
  • Note that the division by the imaginary number is not necessary. However, I keep it so that the final solution is real-valued. (At least I think it guarantees that). One can sertaily remove it.

Suppose that for a given $b\in \mathbb{R}$ \begin{align} 0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R}, \end{align} where $i =\sqrt{-1}$.

Question: How to find a set of general solutions to this equation? I tried to do the Fourier inversion but things didn't work out.

Few details:

  • the integral above is performed in a sense of Cauchy principal value.
  • Note that the division by the imaginary number is not necessary. However, I keep it so that the final solution is real-valued. (At least I think it guarantees that). One can sertaily remove it.
Notice added Authoritative reference needed by Boby
Bounty Started worth 50 reputation by Boby
edited title
Link
Boby
  • 671
  • 4
  • 16

How to solve the following $0= \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac{(bt+\omega)^2}{2}} f(t+\omega) \frac{1}{i \pi t} dt, \forall \omega \in \mathbb{R}$

added 287 characters in body
Source Link
Boby
  • 671
  • 4
  • 16
Loading
Source Link
Boby
  • 671
  • 4
  • 16
Loading