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Mar 7, 2022 at 18:05 history became hot network question
Mar 7, 2022 at 15:53 comment added Gerald Edgar What is your definition of "metric measure space"? If you allow some nonempty open subset of $X$ to have measure zero, then of course no measure doubling property can imply metric doubling.
Mar 7, 2022 at 14:04 vote accept Carlos_Petterson
Mar 7, 2022 at 13:27 history edited Carlos_Petterson CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 7, 2022 at 11:32 comment added Saúl RM I suppose it should be $m(Ball(x,r)) \leq C_m m(Ball(x,r/2))$ (instead of $=$), as in the linked paper?
Mar 7, 2022 at 11:28 answer added Saúl RM timeline score: 10
Mar 7, 2022 at 10:03 history asked Carlos_Petterson CC BY-SA 4.0