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May 22, 2022 at 4:48 history edited Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 30, 2022 at 18:40 history edited Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Apr 30, 2022 at 18:39 history bounty started Noah Schweber
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Apr 30, 2022 at 18:39 comment added Noah Schweber @SridharRamesh There's a good chance I was responsible, actually - every so often I flag a comment thread on one of my own questions as "no longer necessary" if I think it's getting long enough to distract (and is indeed no longer necessary). In case I was the flagger here, no offense was meant at all.
Apr 1, 2022 at 1:01 comment added Sridhar Ramesh Ah, ok, that explains it. I was just curious what had happened. I didn't realize MathOverflow revises the comment record in this way.
Apr 1, 2022 at 1:00 comment added Noah Schweber @SridharRamesh You did indeed - you pointed out an error I'd made, which I acknowledged and corrected. I think then both of our comments were removed as "no longer relevant."
Apr 1, 2022 at 0:59 comment added Sridhar Ramesh I could swear I had made some comments on this question but now I cannot find them. I am surprised, I don't know what has happened. I would not think anything about them required deletion.
Mar 27, 2022 at 19:38 history edited Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 10, 2022 at 18:13 history edited Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Mar 9, 2022 at 15:57 history bounty started Noah Schweber
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Mar 5, 2022 at 23:19 comment added Noah Schweber @Gro-Tsen It can indeed be stated - irreducible self-referentiality is $\Sigma^0_3$ ("There is a $\chi$ such that for all $\psi$ either these three $\Sigma^0_1$ phenomena each hold or they each fail"), so the diagonal lemma applies. I remember convincing myself that it is not i.s.r via the formulas "Is i.s.r." due to the 2/3 equivalence failing, but (1) that wouldn't show that it's not i.s.r. some other way (similarly to the standard Godel sentence as mentioned above) and (2) now that I look at it again, I don't see it as immediately.
Mar 5, 2022 at 23:00 comment added Carl-Fredrik Nyberg Brodda @Gro-Tsen Your comment is not irreducibly self-referential, as can be seen in the comments to this question.
Mar 5, 2022 at 22:53 comment added Gro-Tsen I feel compelled to ask whether the statement “this statement is irreducibly self-referential” is irreducibly self-referential (or can be stated at all), but I'm afraid my brain had a meltdown just trying to unpack what this even means, so it's more of a silly comment than anything else.
Mar 5, 2022 at 22:43 history asked Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 4.0