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Feb 28, 2022 at 17:16 comment added Ben Deitmar Correct, sorry!
Feb 28, 2022 at 15:12 history edited coudy CC BY-SA 4.0
correct typo
Feb 28, 2022 at 12:55 comment added coudy @Tardis I am assuming here that the limit is the Fourier transform of a probability measure. Hence, no additional hypothesis is needed.
Feb 28, 2022 at 10:15 comment added Ben Deitmar @coudy Yes, the definition is correct, but the convergence in distribution is only equivalent to the pointwise convergence of the characteristic functions when certain additional conditions are met. These conditions are not stated in the Wikipedia article about convergence in dirtibution (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…), but they are stated in the article about Levy's continuity theorem (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lévy%27s_continuity_theorem).
Feb 28, 2022 at 8:44 comment added coudy @Tardis My definition is correct. See here for the definition of the convergence in law (or convergence in distribution) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… together with the portmanteau theorem.
Feb 28, 2022 at 7:33 comment added Ben Deitmar Your formulation of the theorem for convergence in law is missing a tightness/continuity-condition. The correct formulation can be found here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lévy%27s_continuity_theorem
Feb 27, 2022 at 11:09 review Close votes
Mar 14, 2022 at 3:06
Feb 27, 2022 at 10:40 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki If you're OK with $f \in C_b^\infty$ rather than $f \in C_b$, then there is a concept of integrable distributions: functionals on $C_b^\infty$, which should give what you are looking for. This class is discussed already in L. Schwartz's Théorie des distributions (Hermann, Paris, 1966).
Feb 27, 2022 at 10:32 history asked coudy CC BY-SA 4.0