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S Mar 28, 2022 at 14:37 history suggested user167485 CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted \newcommand and added the command manually everywhere since it does not parse on all devices
Mar 28, 2022 at 14:31 review Suggested edits
S Mar 28, 2022 at 14:37
Feb 24, 2022 at 20:46 comment added Overflowian @JosephVanName, you are right, we should assume that $X$ is embedded in $\mathbb{R}^N$, or that at least that $X\setminus K$ is equipped with a metric and a connection.
Feb 23, 2022 at 14:51 comment added Joseph Van Name How do we define the notion of when the derivatives of $X\setminus K$ are bounded? This makes sense at least when $X\setminus K$ is an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^{N}$, but how do we define this for more abstract $C^{k}$-manifolds so that functions like inverse tangent have bounded derivatives? Do you want the manifolds to have additional structure?
Feb 22, 2022 at 12:54 history edited Overflowian CC BY-SA 4.0
added 66 characters in body
Feb 22, 2022 at 12:23 history edited Overflowian CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 19 characters in body
Feb 22, 2022 at 12:01 answer added Jochen Wengenroth timeline score: 5
Feb 22, 2022 at 10:03 vote accept Overflowian
Feb 22, 2022 at 0:29 answer added Joseph Van Name timeline score: 5
Feb 22, 2022 at 0:18 comment added LSpice MathJax note: MathJax keeps much more white space than TeX does, so you have to put the $ ending your \newcommand environment on the same line as the beginning of the text, or else your post will start with blank space. I have edited accordingly.
Feb 22, 2022 at 0:17 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Deleting spurious blank lines
Feb 22, 2022 at 0:11 comment added Overflowian @PierrePC that would be interesting, please share it with us.
Feb 21, 2022 at 23:55 comment added Pierre PC Yours is certainly a legitimate notion of "easy", but my question was really about the more general case of $X$ a manifold. That said, I have now convinced myself that this case should follow as a modification of the usual proof of Tietze's extension theorem. I am still unsure about the full generality of your question.
Feb 21, 2022 at 23:47 comment added Overflowian @PierrePC the "easy" version is not when $X$ is a manifold but when $X$ is a manifold and $K$ a submanifold or when $X$ is a manifold with boundary and $K$ its boundary.
Feb 21, 2022 at 23:29 comment added Pierre PC Is it already clear that it should hold for $X$ a manifold?
Feb 21, 2022 at 21:59 history edited Overflowian CC BY-SA 4.0
added 11 characters in body
Feb 21, 2022 at 21:23 comment added Overflowian @ChristianRemling but on $K$ the derivative need not to exist, I required the map to be differentiable only on the complement of $K$.
Feb 21, 2022 at 18:44 history asked Overflowian CC BY-SA 4.0