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Feb 18, 2022 at 9:24 answer added Sean Eberhard timeline score: 2
Feb 18, 2022 at 9:16 vote accept Lluís Alemany-Puig
Feb 18, 2022 at 8:23 history edited Lluís Alemany-Puig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 17, 2022 at 19:01 history became hot network question
Feb 17, 2022 at 13:15 answer added Jukka Kohonen timeline score: 3
Feb 17, 2022 at 13:14 history edited Lluís Alemany-Puig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 17, 2022 at 13:12 answer added Brendan McKay timeline score: 5
Feb 17, 2022 at 13:02 history edited Lluís Alemany-Puig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 17, 2022 at 12:59 comment added Lluís Alemany-Puig @JPMcCarthy, I believe you mean this paper. I've found it on arxiv here. I'm not a mathematician (if anything, computer scientist) and I don't think my training includes the necessary knowledge to understand your paper. Nevertheless, I'll try to understand the relevant bit for our discussion. Any elaboration on the topic will be greatly appreciated!
Feb 17, 2022 at 12:54 comment added Lluís Alemany-Puig @GordonRoyle, Yes, thanks for the heads up
Feb 17, 2022 at 12:08 comment added JP McCarthy The orbits are an equivalence relation on the vertices. There is an equivalence relation on edges given by the orbitals. I know this from quantum automorphism groups but it works classically too. Cannot elaborate right now... paper by Teo Banica and I on "Frucht property" describes it (to some degree).
Feb 17, 2022 at 11:59 comment added Gordon Royle So is this a complicated way of saying that each edge orbit is the set of all edges between two vertex orbits?
Feb 17, 2022 at 11:01 history asked Lluís Alemany-Puig CC BY-SA 4.0