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Feb 16, 2022 at 20:40 comment added b.b Hello, the author of the paper shows under certain assumptions that starting from solutions of $Ady=Bdx$, you can obtain solutions of $D=A\frac{\partial}{\partial X}+B\frac{\partial}{\partial Y}$ at $(0,0)$ (and vice versa). It just happens that when you write the proof, you don't find an $F$ such that $A\frac{\partial F}{\partial X}+B\frac{\partial F}{\partial Y}$ is exactly zero, it is only a multiple of $F$.
Feb 16, 2022 at 16:34 comment added Ilia I am just curious, what is the reason they add $\text{mod }F$ there? For example, in the case $A=1$, $B=0$ I would expect the solution to satisfy $F_x =0$ but instead we get $F_x$ is proportional to $F.$
Feb 16, 2022 at 13:19 history edited YCor
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S Feb 16, 2022 at 13:16 review First questions
Feb 16, 2022 at 13:20
S Feb 16, 2022 at 13:16 history asked b.b CC BY-SA 4.0