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Feb 10, 2022 at 1:34 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 10, 2022 at 1:07 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 10, 2022 at 0:58 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 10, 2022 at 0:54 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @H.E., I think I have now fixed the proof. If $F/k$ is infnitely generated, I can use Vamos. Otherwise, it is finitely generated and infinite dimensional and so much have positive trancendence degree. Then $F\otimes_k F$ is not artinian by a result of Sharp and I can use that.
Feb 10, 2022 at 0:52 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 10, 2022 at 0:48 comment added Benjamin Steinberg I misread it as finite extension. But if you have a nonalgebraic extension, then $F\otimes_k F$ is not artinian. So let me fix.
Feb 10, 2022 at 0:22 comment added H. E. Thank you for your answer! But I have a question on the part when you use Vamos's paper. You claim that if $F/k$ is an infinite extension, then $F \otimes_k F$ is not noetherian. I check the paper and found that $F \otimes_k F$ is noetherian iff $F$ is a finitely generated extension, not a finite extension. Actually, I think that for $F = k(x)$, which is an infinite extension of $k$, $F \otimes_k F$ is noetherian.
Feb 9, 2022 at 17:46 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @UriyaFirst, yes that fixed the D algebraic over k issue but your comment removed my other obstacle which was more serious.
Feb 9, 2022 at 17:43 comment added Uriya First The proof is now correct as far as I can tell. Going to the algebraic closure at first indeed bypasses the complications arising if $D$ is algebraic over $k$.
Feb 9, 2022 at 16:52 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 16:38 comment added Benjamin Steinberg For the commutative case there is an easier proof. If $A$ is commutative and satisfies 2., then $A$ is a direct product of fields and so $A\otimes_k A$ will be semisimple since tensor products commute with direct product. Thus $A$ is a projective $A\otimes_k A$-module and so $A$ satisfies 1 and hence 3.
Feb 9, 2022 at 16:07 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 16:02 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @UriyaFirst, I found what I think is a correct proof now using your idea.
Feb 9, 2022 at 16:01 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 15:41 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 15:38 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @Uriya First, The previous version was slightly wrong. What I really get are subfields of unbounded dimension. I guess they could still all be finite. It is an open question I believe whether a division algebra all of whose elements are algebraic over its center is necessarily finite dimensional over the center.
Feb 9, 2022 at 15:29 comment added Uriya First In a previous version of your answer you said that if $D$ is infinite-dimensional over $Z(D)$, then there is a subfield $F$ of $D$ of infinite dimension over $k$. The ring $D$ is a free right $F$-module. Consequently, $D\otimes_kF$ is a free right $F\otimes_kF$-module. The latter ring is not noetherian, so there is a chain of ideals $I_1\subsetneq I_2 \subsetneq I_3\subsetneq\dots$ in $F\otimes_kF$. Since $D\otimes_kF$ is free over $F\otimes_kF$, we get a strictly increasing chain of left ideals $(D\otimes_k F)I_1\subsetneq(D\otimes_k F)I_2\subsetneq\dots$, so $D\otimes_k F$ is not noetherian.
Feb 9, 2022 at 15:22 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 15:15 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 15:13 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 15:08 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 15:02 history edited Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 9, 2022 at 14:27 history answered Benjamin Steinberg CC BY-SA 4.0