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Jan 31, 2022 at 20:11 comment added Tomasz Kania math.stackexchange.com/questions/923634/…
Jan 31, 2022 at 19:45 comment added Guy Fsone You mean every Banach space with a Basis has this property? Especially separable spaces?
Jan 31, 2022 at 11:16 comment added Tomasz Kania Yes, because these spaces have a basis. (For the case $L_\infty$ you can use a different argument). The approximation property is the term to look up.
Jan 31, 2022 at 11:09 history asked Guy Fsone CC BY-SA 4.0