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Feb 3, 2022 at 21:56 vote accept ABIM
Jan 27, 2022 at 12:55 comment added ABIM @JohanessHahn I thought it wasn't true (but maybe there is some assumption implicitly working where which I'm not aware of).
Jan 26, 2022 at 22:00 comment added Johannes Hahn Honestly, no. I found a flaw in my original argument and haven't had the time to try to fix it yet. At least I found some articles that claim your more general conjecture is true that the tensor product of two Schauder basis is a Schauder basis of the (projective) tensor product, but alas it was stated without a reference. Is that because it is a well known fact to people in functional analysis? I'm hopeful.
Jan 25, 2022 at 23:53 comment added ABIM @JohanessHahn any luck on the full detailed version?
Jan 25, 2022 at 23:52 vote accept ABIM
Jan 26, 2022 at 14:50
Jan 24, 2022 at 13:50 comment added ABIM I guess, since $L^1(Q_k,H)\cong L^1(Q_k)\hat{\otimes} H \cong L^1([0,1]^n)\otimes H$ and then, the density of $\{\psi_{\cdot}\}$ in $L^1([0,1]^n)$ implies that $\{\psi_{\cdot}\cdot h_{\cdot}\}$ is dense in $L^1(Q_k,H)$. Thus, by your semi-norm formulation of the topology in $L^1_{loc}(\mathbb{R},H)$ we would have our conclusion; no?
Jan 24, 2022 at 12:52 vote accept ABIM
Jan 24, 2022 at 12:52
Jan 24, 2022 at 11:45 history answered Johannes Hahn CC BY-SA 4.0