Timeline for Does normalcy in one base imply normalcy in any other base?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 22, 2022 at 12:32 | vote | accept | Dominic van der Zypen | ||
| Jan 21, 2022 at 18:40 | history | became hot network question | |||
| Jan 21, 2022 at 16:14 | comment | added | Dave L Renfro | I didn't notice until seeing Emil Jeřábek's and Wojowu's comments (just now) that you are incorrectly defining what "normal numbers" are. To follow-up on their comments, for more about this larger collection of numbers see this 19 February 2003 sci.math post and this 5 January 2012 MSE answer and this 9 April 2018 MSE answer. | |
| Jan 21, 2022 at 11:14 | comment | added | Wojowu | Apparently numbers in which every sequence appears are called disjunctive or rish in the given base. | |
| Jan 21, 2022 at 11:13 | comment | added | Emil Jeřábek | This is nonstandard terminology. Usually, a number is normal to base $b$ if any string $w\in\{0,\dots,b-1\}^n$ appears in the base-$b$ expansion of the number with asymptotic density $b^{-n}$; this is much stronger than the mere fact that each string appears in the expansion. | |
| Jan 21, 2022 at 11:12 | comment | added | Wojowu | The answer, with references, is on Wikipedia. | |
| Jan 21, 2022 at 10:42 | comment | added | Dave L Renfro | See my 5 July 2002 sci.math post Numbers normal to one base but not to another base. (Note: In that post I seem to have reversed the definitions of multiplicatively dependent and multiplicatively independent.) | |
| Jan 21, 2022 at 10:23 | answer | added | Glorfindel | timeline score: 8 | |
| Jan 21, 2022 at 9:43 | history | asked | Dominic van der Zypen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |