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Jan 19, 2022 at 5:46 history edited ABB CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 18, 2022 at 22:16 comment added Saúl RM @PietroMajer I was confused at first too, but I think he means that the function takes values in any set $Y$, not just in $\mathbb{C}$ (although that´s not what people usually mean when they say set-valued).
Jan 18, 2022 at 5:40 vote accept ABB
Jan 17, 2022 at 21:07 comment added Pietro Majer In fact the standard definition is actually: simple function=finite range, Borel measurable function=linear combination of characteristic functions of Borel subsets. But where are the set-valued functions?
Jan 17, 2022 at 17:09 answer added John Dawkins timeline score: 5
Jan 17, 2022 at 16:22 comment added ABB @Saúl Rodríguez Martín Thanks, Nice argument.
Jan 17, 2022 at 15:30 comment added Saúl RM Sorry, I didn´t read correctly. In general the statement seems false, you can take the real line in the cofinite topology, $\mathbb{R}'$, and define the functions $f_n:\mathbb{R}'\to\mathbb{R}'$ by $f_n(x)=n\;\forall x$, and then take as a limit some non measurable function you want (the Borel sets would be the countable sets and their complements, and any function $f:\mathbb{R}'\to\mathbb{R}'$ is a pointwise limit of that sequence). In metric spaces it seems to work though.
Jan 17, 2022 at 15:15 comment added Dieter Kadelka Your notation is unknown to me. What is the definition of a finite range Borel measurable function?
Jan 17, 2022 at 14:56 review Close votes
Jan 24, 2022 at 3:07
Jan 17, 2022 at 14:39 comment added ABB The link that you referred does not work for set valued functions.
Jan 17, 2022 at 14:38 comment added ABB @Saúl Rodríguez Martín, It is concerned with set-valued functions not complex valued! I have no clue to find a proof
Jan 17, 2022 at 14:24 comment added Saúl RM This question is better suited for MSE, in fact it´s answered here
Jan 17, 2022 at 12:51 history undeleted ABB
Jan 17, 2022 at 12:49 history deleted ABB via Vote
Jan 17, 2022 at 12:39 history asked ABB CC BY-SA 4.0