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Jan 16, 2022 at 1:34 vote accept user53093
S Jan 16, 2022 at 1:30 vote accept user53093
Jan 16, 2022 at 1:34
Jan 14, 2022 at 22:11 answer added Geoff Robinson timeline score: 2
Jan 14, 2022 at 9:11 history became hot network question
Jan 14, 2022 at 9:03 comment added YCor Note that the answer doesn't use $|X|=|Y|$ (which is immediate, namely applied to the trivial representation with character 1). And for non-commutative finite groups, the statement should hold, for the same reason, when $X,Y$ are assumed to be conjugacy-invariant.
Jan 14, 2022 at 5:35 vote accept user53093
S Jan 16, 2022 at 1:30
Jan 14, 2022 at 2:06 answer added Absol timeline score: 6
Jan 14, 2022 at 1:07 comment added LSpice Yes, for the same reason as your previous question.
Jan 14, 2022 at 1:06 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 14, 2022 at 1:03 history asked user53093 CC BY-SA 4.0