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Jan 13, 2022 at 21:00 vote accept Desunkid
Jan 9, 2022 at 11:17 vote accept Desunkid
Jan 9, 2022 at 18:34
Jan 8, 2022 at 11:19 comment added Johannes Huisman That exact sequence is not necessarily split. It is like $\lim \mu_{p^\infty}$, where $\mu_{p^\infty}$ is the group of roots of unity in $\mathbf C$ of order a power of $p$. That projective limit is torsion free. Hence, the surjective map from $\lim \mu_{p^\infty}$ to $\mu_{p^\infty}$ does not have a section.
Jan 8, 2022 at 8:49 comment added Desunkid I think it''s stange for me because we have $0 \rightarrow T_p A \rightarrow B(A) \rightarrow A(\overline{K}) \rightarrow 0$, the map $B(A) \rightarrow A(\overline{K})$ send $(u_0,u_1,...) \mapsto u_0$. It follows that $B(A)=T_p(A) \times A(\overline{K})$ as groups?
Jan 8, 2022 at 7:04 comment added Johannes Huisman Limits commute with limits. In particular, $\lim(A(\bar K)[p^\infty]\times W)=(\lim A(\bar K)[p^\infty])\times (\lim W)$, and $\lim W=W$ since multiplication by $p$ is a bijection on $W$.
Jan 7, 2022 at 23:10 comment added Desunkid Thank you for your answer. Can you explain more about $B(A)\cong T_pA\oplus W$? It is really amazing for me!
Jan 7, 2022 at 20:06 history answered Johannes Huisman CC BY-SA 4.0