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Jan 6, 2022 at 18:53 comment added Shannon Starr @Quick Exactly as Carlo Beenakker says. You turned the 2 steps around. You do not first get $\partial_w$ derivative and then use that ``Stein's lemma.'' Rather you use the lemma to get the $\partial_w$ derivative formula you first wrote, exactly as Carlo Beenakker has showed. (I just wanted to add to their answer that you switched the 2 steps.)
Jan 6, 2022 at 18:29 history answered Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0