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Jan 7, 2022 at 9:34 vote accept Ivan Meir
Jan 5, 2022 at 2:03 answer added Joe Silverman timeline score: 7
Jan 4, 2022 at 21:42 comment added Emil Jeřábek @LSpice The $x+1$ map takes $\infty$ to itself, the $-1/x$ map to $0$. Thus, if a path from one rational to another goes through $\infty$, that part of the path must be just $0\mapsto\infty\mapsto0$, and you can eliminate it.
Jan 4, 2022 at 21:35 comment added pregunton @LSpice If at some point when we apply these generators in sequence we arrive at $\infty$ again, the product $\phi'$ of the remaining generators still sends $\infty$ to $q$, so WLOG we can choose $\phi$ so that on succesively applying the sequence of generators we will always stay inside $\mathbb{Q}$. Then $\phi_0 = S^{-1}\phi = T^aST^bST^c\ldots$ sends $0$ to $q$, as we wanted.
Jan 4, 2022 at 21:35 comment added pregunton @LSpice I guess it's not completely obvious, but here is how one can see it: by transitivity, there is some $\phi \in SL(2,\mathbb{Z})$ sending $\infty$ to any rational number $q$. We can decompose it as $\phi = ST^aST^bST^c\ldots$, where $S : x\mapsto -1/x$ and $T : x\mapsto x+1$ (the first factor may be taken to to be $S$ WLOG, since $\infty+1=\infty$).
Jan 4, 2022 at 20:14 comment added LSpice @pregunton, is it obvious that it is possible to generate $\mathbb Q$ by applying those maps only to elements of $\mathbb Q$ (that is, I suppose, that it is not the case that the unique way first to get to $0$ is as $-1/\infty$)?
S Jan 4, 2022 at 17:06 history suggested Dirk Werner CC BY-SA 4.0
some typos
Jan 4, 2022 at 17:04 review Suggested edits
S Jan 4, 2022 at 17:06
Jan 4, 2022 at 15:34 history edited Stopple CC BY-SA 4.0
less -> fewer
Jan 4, 2022 at 11:50 comment added Algernon @IvanMeir I see! I thought by rational you meant $f:\mathbb{Q}\to\mathbb{Q}$. My bad.
Jan 4, 2022 at 11:33 answer added Wojowu timeline score: 19
Jan 4, 2022 at 11:30 comment added Joe Silverman As Fedor says, a linear fractional transformation won't work. And if $f(x)\in\mathbb Q(x)$ has degree $d\ge2$ and $a\in\mathbb Q$ has infinite $f$-orbit, then the height $H\bigl(f^{\circ n}(a)\bigr)$ grows like $C^{d^n}$ for some $C>1$. Hence not only is the orbit not dense, it is in fact extremely sparse as a subset of $\mathbb Q$.
Jan 4, 2022 at 11:25 comment added Ivan Meir @Algernon By rational function I mean a ratio of polynomials so not necessarily continuous but with at worst finitely many discontinuities.
Jan 4, 2022 at 11:25 comment added Wojowu @Algernon All rational functions are continuous outside of a single set of poles.
Jan 4, 2022 at 11:06 comment added Algernon Do you mean continuous rational functions? Without continuity, you can obviously construct a single function based on an enumeration of the rationals that does the job.
Jan 4, 2022 at 11:01 comment added Fedor Petrov $f(x)=(ax+b)/(cx+d)$ does not work, and other functions do not seem to be surjective
Jan 4, 2022 at 10:56 comment added Roland Bacher A unique such rational function (if it exists) induces cyclic permutations of all elements of the projective line over $\mathbb F_p$ for all (or perhaps almost all) primes 𝑝. I think this is quite an extraordinary property.
Jan 4, 2022 at 10:41 comment added Ivan Meir Yes, great observation thank you.
Jan 4, 2022 at 10:32 comment added pregunton It is possible to generate $\mathbb{Q}$ with the two functions $x \mapsto x+1$ and $x \mapsto -1/x$, as the modular group $PSL(2,\mathbb{Z})$ generated by these two functions acts transitively on $\mathbb{QP}^1$.
Jan 4, 2022 at 10:26 history edited Ivan Meir CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed typo
Jan 4, 2022 at 10:19 history asked Ivan Meir CC BY-SA 4.0