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Jan 1, 2022 at 11:05 comment added Dieter Kadelka Let $\pi$ be the prime counting function. Let $\Omega := \{1,\ldots,n\}$. I think that your random variables are $X_n(k) = \pi(k)$ and $Y_n(k) = \pi(n) - \pi(k)$ (your notation is not clear). Then $C_ n = \mathbb{E}(X_nY_n) - \mathbb{E}(X_n) \mathbb{E}(Y_n) = -\mathbb{E}X_n^2 + (\mathbb{E}X_n)^2$. With the prime number theorem this can be approximated.
Jan 1, 2022 at 7:49 history asked Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 4.0