Timeline for Does the Radon-Nikodym derivative commute with integration?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 2, 2022 at 15:42 | vote | accept | gigalord | ||
| Jan 1, 2022 at 21:21 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jan 6, 2022 at 3:06 | |||||
| Jan 1, 2022 at 17:56 | answer | added | John Dawkins | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jan 1, 2022 at 16:16 | comment | added | gigalord | @DCM yes I believe that is right | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 21:07 | comment | added | DCM | (my $\nu_t$ is your $f(t,\cdot)$ by the way - I know I should really stick with your notation, but writing it in a more familiar way might help people (me) recognise certain things more easily) | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 21:06 | comment | added | DCM | This just might just be my general ignorance, but I'm struggling a bit to make sense of your question. It seems to me like you have a family $(\nu_t)_{t\in \mathbb{R}}$ of measures and want to know whether/when it's possible to make sense of the 'integral' $ \nu = \int_\mathbb{R}\nu_t\hspace{.2pc}\mathrm{d}t$ and, if so, whether $ \nu(E) = \int_\mathbb{R} \nu_t(E)\hspace{.2pc} \mathrm{d}t$ for $E\in \Sigma$. Is that anywhere close? | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 20:16 | history | edited | Alex M. | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 25 characters in body
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| S Dec 31, 2021 at 20:02 | review | First questions | |||
| Dec 31, 2021 at 20:17 | |||||
| S Dec 31, 2021 at 20:02 | history | asked | gigalord | CC BY-SA 4.0 |