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Dec 29, 2021 at 10:55 comment added user237522 Thank you. It is too strong for me to require that $t \mapsto (f(t),g(t)$ is injective.. I wish to consider $f$ and $g$ of degree $\geq 4$ satisfying (1)-(4).
Dec 29, 2021 at 10:40 comment added Jérémy Blanc Asking that $f',g'$ do not have a common zero implies to have an immersion. If $t\mapsto (f(t),g(t))$ is moreover injective, then you are done. But maybe this is not enough mild for you?
Dec 29, 2021 at 1:15 comment added user237522 I remember a paper with condition $f',g' \in \mathbb{C}[f,g]$, but it does not seem 'mild' to me.
Dec 29, 2021 at 1:10 vote accept user237522
Dec 29, 2021 at 1:08 comment added user237522 Thank you very much! I was curious about the case $\deg(h) \geq 2$, which also has a counterexample math.stackexchange.com/questions/4340517/… Please, do you think there exists a 'mild' condition (in addition to (1)-(4)) that would imply $\mathbb{C}[f,g]=\mathbb{C}[t]$?
Dec 28, 2021 at 21:39 history answered Jérémy Blanc CC BY-SA 4.0