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Dec 21, 2021 at 19:22 comment added Floromidante I see it now. Thank you very much!
Dec 21, 2021 at 19:10 comment added Martin Hairer Sorry, the minus sign in $B$ was a typo. The expectations of $f$ and $g$ are then obviously equal but the expectation of the ratio is greater than $e^{\lambda/2}$ say for $\lambda$ large enough. (You get a lower bound by restricting the integral to a small cap around $(0,1)$.)
Dec 21, 2021 at 18:08 comment added Floromidante @MartinHairer But in that case $$\int_{\mathbb{S}^1}\exp(x^\top[B-A]x)dx=\int_{\mathbb{S}^1}e^{-\lambda}dx=e^{-\lambda}$$ And \begin{align*} \frac{\int_{\mathbb{S}^{n-1}}\exp\left(x^{\top}Ax\right)dx}{\int_{\mathbb{S}^{n-1}}\exp\left(x^{\top}Bx\right)dx} &=\frac{\int_{\mathbb{S}^{n-1}}\exp\left(x^{\top}(A-B)x\right)\exp\left(x^{\top}Bx\right)dx}{\int_{\mathbb{S}^{n-1}}\exp\left(x^{\top}Bx\right)dx}\\ &=\int_{\mathbb{S}^1}e^{\lambda}\frac{\exp(x^\top B x)}{\int_{\mathbb{S}^1}\exp(x^\top Bx)dx}dx\\ &=e^{\lambda} \end{align*} So the product is $1$.
Dec 20, 2021 at 17:28 comment added Martin Hairer You probably can't do much better, consider $n=2$, $A = \mathrm{diag}(\lambda,0)$, and $B = -\mathrm{diag}(0,\lambda)$ for some very large $\lambda$.
Dec 20, 2021 at 4:36 history edited Floromidante CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 20, 2021 at 4:23 comment added Floromidante @MattF. I am interested in "quotient times quotient". Sorry for the misleading title
Dec 20, 2021 at 4:20 history edited Floromidante CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
S Dec 20, 2021 at 1:26 review First questions
Dec 20, 2021 at 4:39
S Dec 20, 2021 at 1:26 history asked Floromidante CC BY-SA 4.0