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Timeline for Comparing maps of reduced schemes

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Nov 18, 2009 at 22:29 comment added David E Speyer I think the adjective "normal" should help a great deal here. For example, I believe that a map of finite type normal varieties, which is a bijection on points, is an isomorphism. But I don't have an answer to the original question.
Nov 18, 2009 at 19:49 answer added S. Carnahan timeline score: 1
Nov 5, 2009 at 10:17 comment added Jose Capco What you are asking will (in my opinion) always require a scheme theoretic condition.. For instance, your example Z⊆Y being a subscheme is already a scheme theretic condition, you require something about the rings involved in the structure sheaf.
Nov 5, 2009 at 4:47 comment added Andrew Critch @Kevin: replaced K by Z.
Nov 5, 2009 at 4:45 history edited Andrew Critch CC BY-SA 2.5
replaced K by Z
Nov 5, 2009 at 2:42 comment added Kevin H. Lin Ah, can you use Z or something instead of K? When I see K, I can only think "field". I suppose this is not very mathematicianly of me. It's kind of physicistly, maybe -- well, it's "field theory" after all ;-)
Nov 5, 2009 at 2:01 comment added S. Carnahan @KMB: Let f be the identity on the cuspidal cubic X=Y=Spec k[x,y]/(y^2-x^3), and let g be the normalization from A^1. Then there is no factorization, since k[x] doesn't map to k[x^2,x^3] in a way that commutes with the reverse inclusion.
Nov 4, 2009 at 23:25 comment added Kevin Buzzard Given that no-one has bitten yet, can I explicitly ask whether people think it might hold if X and K are reduced varieties over a field? Maybe one needs X to be smooth? I'm not sure. I'm a bit concerned about the resolution of the singularity of a cuspidal cubic being a homeomorphism on the top spaces (and the map only existing in one direction in alg geo) but can't make an explicit counterexample.
Nov 4, 2009 at 17:20 history asked Andrew Critch CC BY-SA 2.5