Skip to main content
7 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Dec 13, 2021 at 20:22 vote accept Laithy
Dec 13, 2021 at 20:17 comment added Laithy The goal hasn't changed. I was asking for a different approach for the $\textbf{same}$ thing. Anyhow, thank you for your answer.
Dec 13, 2021 at 20:04 comment added Willie Wong on the interval $[0,\infty)$ with boundary conditions at $0$, and require $g(r) \sim 1/ r^2$ as $r\nearrow \infty$, you will find that the Dirichlet-Newmann map will have norm independent of $\ell$ (in fact, equal 1). So there is a possibility that the norm you are looking for can be sensitive to the precise terms that show up.
Dec 13, 2021 at 19:59 comment added Willie Wong (a) I don't like to deal with moving goal posts. (b) It is easy enough to write down a homogeneous ODE of the form $p(r) f''(r) + 2 q(r) f'(r) + h(\ell,r) f(r) = 0$, depending on the parameter $\ell$, whose solutions look like $\frac{1}{(r+1)(1 + r^2)^{\ell/2}}$. We can even guarantee that $p(r) \sim r^2$ and $q(r) \sim r$ as $r\nearrow \infty$, and that the leading order term of $h$ behaves like $-\ell(\ell+1)$. So something qualitatively similar to what you have. If you try to solve the equation $$p(r) f'' + 2q(r) f' + h(\ell,r) f = (f(0) + f'(0)) g(r) $$ ...
Dec 13, 2021 at 19:23 comment added Laithy The ODE that I am actually working with is more complicated (though still linear with explicit coefficients), and it will be very difficult to apply this approach. Is there a way to prove this $O(\ell)$ result without using the simplicity of the ODE?
Dec 13, 2021 at 18:52 history edited Willie Wong CC BY-SA 4.0
added 500 characters in body
Dec 13, 2021 at 18:34 history answered Willie Wong CC BY-SA 4.0