Define (the starting times of the walks) $S_1,S_2,\dots$ and (the finishing times of the walks) $F_0,F_1,F_2,\dots$ by the following recursion: \begin{equation*} F_0:=0 \end{equation*} and, for $k\in\N$, \begin{equation*} S_k:=F_{k-1}+T_k,\quad F_k:=\inf\{n\in\N\colon n>S_k,W^{(k)}_n=0\}, \tag{3} \end{equation*} where \begin{equation*} W^{(k)}_n:=\sum_{i\in\N}R_i\,1(S_k<i\le n). \tag{3a} \end{equation*} Note that $F_0=0<\infty$ and $F_k=\min\{n\in\N\colon n>S_k,W^{(k)}_n=0\}<\infty$ for all $k\in\N_0:=\{0\}\cup\N$$k\in\N$ almost surely (a.s.), because the simple random walk is recurrent. So, $S_k<\infty$ for all $k\in\N$ a.s.
Showing that $((Y_n,\F_n))_{n\in\N}$ is a martingale: Abusing notation as is commonly done, for a r.v. $X$ let us write $X\in\F_n$ to mean that $X$ is $\F$$\F_n$-measurable. Then obviously $1(F_0\le n)=1(0\le n)\in\F_0:=\{\Om,\emptyset\}\subseteq\F_1$ for all $n\in\N$. Using now the relations \begin{equation*} 1(S_k\le n)=\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}1(T_k=j)1(F_{k-1}\le n-j), \end{equation*} $1(T_k=j)=1(T_k\le j)-1(T_k\le j-1)$, and \begin{equation*} \{F_k\not\le n\}= \bigcap_{m=1}^n\Big(\{S_k\not\le m-1\}\cup\Big\{\sum_{i=1}^m R_i\,1(S_k\le i-1)\ne0\Big\}\Big) \end{equation*} for natural $k,j$ (which follow by (3) and (3a)), we conclude by induction on $k$ that \begin{equation*} \{S_k\le n\}\in\F_n,\quad \{F_k\le n\}\in\F_n \tag{5} \end{equation*} for all natural $k,n$.