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Dec 1, 2021 at 18:44 comment added Didine Zaidni Let u and v be distributions in D′(U). Assume that there is no point (x, k) in WF(u) such that (x, −k) belongs to WF(v), then the product uv can be defined. (Lars Hörmander)
Dec 1, 2021 at 14:33 comment added hordubal It depends on how you define the product, i.e., under which conditions on the distributions. In my book, it is well-defined but if this bothers you, you can smooth them out to very good $C^\infty$ approximations by the usual methods.
Dec 1, 2021 at 12:42 comment added Didine Zaidni Thank you @bathalf15320 , but I am not sur if the product r_n^2 is well defined in the sens of generalized functions, for exemple the Heaviside function verifies that H.H = H but the product H.H is not well defined becuse does not satisfy the leibniz rule.
Dec 1, 2021 at 8:44 comment added bathalf15320 The standard example for this kind of question is the sequence of Rademacher functions--converge to zero in various weak topoloy but the squares converge to $1$.
Nov 30, 2021 at 18:22 history edited Didine Zaidni CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Nov 30, 2021 at 17:27 review First questions
Nov 30, 2021 at 17:35
S Nov 30, 2021 at 17:27 history asked Didine Zaidni CC BY-SA 4.0