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Apr 18 at 1:53 history edited Harry Altman CC BY-SA 4.0
apparently this use of "left-invariant" is actually standard, so I'm updating the question (and title) to reflect that
Apr 5 at 7:36 comment added Harry Altman Worth noting: There are, apparently, compact loops without invariant uniformities (and I could probably adapt the examples to prove a lack of Haar measure, too). But the only examples I've seen don't have the inverse property, so...
Jul 10, 2023 at 6:13 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @TarasBanakh Spectacular! Please if you recall a reference, let me know! On Wikipedia I only found that the group of self-isotopies is Spin(8), and that of unit-preserving isotopies is Spin(7). Maybe this already suffices but what you say is still very interesting
Jul 10, 2023 at 5:50 comment added Taras Banakh @მამუკაჯიბლაძე As far as I remember they are related through a suitable section $s:G/H\to G$ of the quotient map $q:G\to G/H$. So that $x*y=q(s(x)\cdot s(y))$ where $*$ is the loop multiplication and $\cdot $ is the multiplication in the group.
Jul 9, 2023 at 22:14 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @TarasBanakh What I don't see is how the homogeneous space structure relates to the loop multiplication - a priori they are totally unrelated, no?
Jul 8, 2023 at 18:30 comment added Taras Banakh @მამუკაჯიბლაძე I hope so. The invariance (at least one-sided) of the quotient measure should follow from the invariance of the Haar measure.
Jul 8, 2023 at 7:01 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @TarasBanakh Also it is not clear (to me) what kind of representation of, say, the loop of unit octonions as a quotient of some topological group would give an invariant measure. It is a 7-dimensional sphere, so it is, for example, $SO(8)/SO(7)$, but is the resulting measure invariant?
Jul 8, 2023 at 2:34 history edited Harry Altman CC BY-SA 4.0
add missing words
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S Jun 29, 2023 at 7:28 history bounty started Harry Altman
S Jun 29, 2023 at 7:28 history notice added Harry Altman Draw attention
S Dec 10, 2021 at 9:03 history bounty ended CommunityBot
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Dec 7, 2021 at 17:44 comment added Taras Banakh Unfortunately, I have not elaborated my coment to the level sufficient for a good answer. Now I am even not sure about the representation of a zero-dimensional loop as an inverse limit of finite loops. This is a good question if such a representation exists for every compact zero-dimensional loop. For a bit different structure, namely that of a dynamical system, such representations do not exist: just look at the Cantor cube $\{0,1\}^Z$ with the shift map.
Dec 7, 2021 at 7:07 comment added Harry Altman Hm, that's certainly a quite different approach. I can try it, but any chance you can fill in the details enough to turn that into an answer...?
Dec 2, 2021 at 8:43 comment added Taras Banakh For the general case, one should represent a compact loop and the quotient space of some topological group (generated by shifts) and look for such an invariant measure on the homogeneous space.
Dec 2, 2021 at 8:42 comment added Taras Banakh For finite loops you have such a measure. Since each zero-dimensional compact loop is an inverse limit of finite loops, such an invariant measure should exist also for compact zero-dimensional loops.
S Dec 2, 2021 at 7:14 history bounty started Harry Altman
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Nov 30, 2021 at 5:35 history asked Harry Altman CC BY-SA 4.0