Timeline for Decomposition of a bivector of a Lorentzian manifold [closed]
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Dec 16, 2021 at 16:57 | history | closed |
Johannes Hahn LeechLattice Ben McKay coudy Dima Pasechnik |
Needs details or clarity | |
| Dec 8, 2021 at 18:02 | comment | added | AlexArvanitakis | @WillieWong: I think F^2 means F\wedge F. Hence $dx\wedge dy$ has $F^2=0$. But also what is the question? Is it whether the claim is true (seems so, it's been referenced) or whether it's obscure? | |
| Dec 8, 2021 at 14:50 | comment | added | Willie Wong | What do you mean by $F^2$? And can you clarify your statement? For example, the two-form $dx\wedge dy$ has Lorentzian inner product with itself non-zero, but it is not the sum of two orthogonal simple bivectors (unless you admit the 0 bivector as simple). | |
| Dec 8, 2021 at 13:55 | history | edited | Amir Sagiv | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
tex edit
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| Nov 25, 2021 at 16:25 | review | Close votes | |||
| Dec 16, 2021 at 16:57 | |||||
| S Nov 25, 2021 at 15:35 | review | First questions | |||
| Nov 25, 2021 at 16:01 | |||||
| S Nov 25, 2021 at 15:35 | history | asked | Fabrice Pardo | CC BY-SA 4.0 |