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Dec 8, 2021 at 17:43 history closed Alexandre Eremenko
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Desiderius Severus
Eric Peterson
Daniele Tampieri
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Nov 22, 2021 at 14:57 vote accept Star
Nov 22, 2021 at 14:56 comment added Star Yes, I have edited that. Thanks
Nov 22, 2021 at 14:56 history edited Star CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 22, 2021 at 14:54 comment added Iosif Pinelis In your formula $$ Pr_{(X,Y)}(\mathcal{A})=F((-\infty,2]\times [-1,\infty))+\frac{1}{2}F((-\infty,2]\times (-\infty,-1]), $$ you treat $F$ as a function of a set, whereas in fact $F$ is a function of pair of real numbers.
Nov 22, 2021 at 14:51 review Close votes
Dec 8, 2021 at 17:43
Nov 22, 2021 at 14:51 comment added Star Thank you for pointing this out.
Nov 22, 2021 at 14:47 comment added Iosif Pinelis There is no such thing as "a probability measure of a random vector". There is the notion, though, of the probability distribution of a random vector (which is a measure).
Nov 22, 2021 at 14:29 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 2
Nov 22, 2021 at 13:45 history asked Star CC BY-SA 4.0