Skip to main content
6 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Nov 18, 2021 at 16:40 vote accept LMP
Nov 17, 2021 at 18:21 answer added Will Sawin timeline score: 11
Nov 17, 2021 at 13:35 comment added user44143 For the introductory question about finite $n$, the answer is yes because the primes contain arbitrarily long arithmetic progressions.
Nov 17, 2021 at 13:31 comment added user44143 Why do you conjecture that the infinite sets do not exist when you have been told that the question is open? A research-level conjecture ought to be backed up by some research.
Nov 17, 2021 at 10:45 comment added Zach Hunter Doesn’t Maynard’s paper on prime gaps imply there exists an infinite set $A$ and finite set $B$ with $|B|=n$ such that $A+B$ only contains primes?
Nov 17, 2021 at 10:36 history asked LMP CC BY-SA 4.0