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Volume of regions defined by When do volumes depend real analytic functions depending-analytically on a parameterthe parameters defining the regions?

Suppose $f_1, \dots, f_n$ are real-valued real analytic functions defined on an open set $B=(0,1)^d$ of $\mathbb{R}^d$. For $r \in \mathbb{R}$, setlet $S_r$ to be the sub-level set in $B$ defined by the system of inequalities $$f_1(x) <r, \dots, f_n(x)<r,$$ and denote by $V(r)$ the volume of the set $S_r$. It is easy to see that oneOne generally cannot expect $V(r)$ to be a real analytic function of $r$; take, for instance, $B=(0,1)$ and $f_1(x)=x$. Nevertheless, it seem

It seems to me that if one somehow avoids "incoming" or "outgoing" conditions as $r$ varies, then $V(r)$ should depend real analytically-analytically on $r$. I would very much appreciate a reference ifCan such a statement can be precisely formulated and proved.

Edit: The comment below by Nicolas regarding the set $B$ has been incorporated in the statement of the question., and is there a reference for it?

Volume of regions defined by real analytic functions depending on a parameter

Suppose $f_1, \dots, f_n$ are real-valued real analytic functions defined on an open set $B=(0,1)^d$ of $\mathbb{R}^d$. For $r \in \mathbb{R}$, set $S_r$ to be the sub-level set in $B$ defined by the system of inequalities $$f_1(x) <r, \dots, f_n(x)<r,$$ and denote by $V(r)$ the volume of the set $S_r$. It is easy to see that one generally cannot expect $V(r)$ to be a real analytic function of $r$; take, for instance, $B=(0,1)$ and $f_1(x)=x$. Nevertheless, it seem to me that if one somehow avoids "incoming" or "outgoing" conditions as $r$ varies, then $V(r)$ should depend real analytically on $r$. I would very much appreciate a reference if such a statement can be precisely formulated and proved.

Edit: The comment below by Nicolas regarding the set $B$ has been incorporated in the statement of the question.

When do volumes depend real-analytically on the parameters defining the regions?

Suppose $f_1, \dots, f_n$ are real-valued real analytic functions defined on an open set $B=(0,1)^d$ of $\mathbb{R}^d$. For $r \in \mathbb{R}$, let $S_r$ be the sub-level set in $B$ defined by the system of inequalities $$f_1(x) <r, \dots, f_n(x)<r,$$ and denote by $V(r)$ the volume of the set $S_r$. One generally cannot expect $V(r)$ to be a real analytic function of $r$; take, for instance, $B=(0,1)$ and $f_1(x)=x$.

It seems to me that if one somehow avoids "incoming" or "outgoing" conditions as $r$ varies, then $V(r)$ should depend real-analytically on $r$. Can such a statement be precisely formulated and proved, and is there a reference for it?

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Suppose $f_1, \dots, f_n$ are real-valued real analytic functions defined on an open set $B$$B=(0,1)^d$ of $ \mathbb{R}^d$$\mathbb{R}^d$. For For $r \in \mathbb{R}$, set $S_r$ to be the sub-level set in $B$ defined by the system of inequalities $$f_1(x) <r, \dots, f_n(x)<r,$$ and denote by $V(r)$ the volume of the set $S_r$. It is easy to see that one generally cannot expect $V(r)$ to be a real analytic function of $r$; take, for instance, $B=(0,1)$ and $f_1(x)=x$. Nevertheless, it seem to me that if one somehow avoids "incoming" or "outgoing" conditions as $r$ varies, then $V(r)$ should depend real analytically on $r$. I would very much appreciate a reference if such a statement can be precisely formulated and proved.

Edit: The comment below by Nicolas regarding the set $B$ has been incorporated in the statement of the question.

Suppose $f_1, \dots, f_n$ are real-valued real analytic functions defined on an open set $B$ of $ \mathbb{R}^d$. For $r \in \mathbb{R}$, set $S_r$ to be the sub-level set in $B$ defined by the system of inequalities $$f_1(x) <r, \dots, f_n(x)<r,$$ and denote by $V(r)$ the volume of the set $S_r$. It is easy to see that one generally cannot expect $V(r)$ to be a real analytic function of $r$; take, for instance, $B=(0,1)$ and $f_1(x)=x$. Nevertheless, it seem to me that if one somehow avoids "incoming" or "outgoing" conditions as $r$ varies, then $V(r)$ should depend real analytically on $r$. I would very much appreciate a reference if such a statement can be precisely formulated and proved.

Suppose $f_1, \dots, f_n$ are real-valued real analytic functions defined on an open set $B=(0,1)^d$ of $\mathbb{R}^d$. For $r \in \mathbb{R}$, set $S_r$ to be the sub-level set in $B$ defined by the system of inequalities $$f_1(x) <r, \dots, f_n(x)<r,$$ and denote by $V(r)$ the volume of the set $S_r$. It is easy to see that one generally cannot expect $V(r)$ to be a real analytic function of $r$; take, for instance, $B=(0,1)$ and $f_1(x)=x$. Nevertheless, it seem to me that if one somehow avoids "incoming" or "outgoing" conditions as $r$ varies, then $V(r)$ should depend real analytically on $r$. I would very much appreciate a reference if such a statement can be precisely formulated and proved.

Edit: The comment below by Nicolas regarding the set $B$ has been incorporated in the statement of the question.

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Keivan Karai
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Keivan Karai
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