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Dec 11, 2021 at 21:09 comment added Joel Kamnitzer Yes, this is correct. The key point is that when we define the spherical functor, $ S_i $ is regarded as just a right module, but it is actually a bimodule, and $ Hom_{\Pi_G}(S_i, F) \otimes_K S_i = Hom_{\Pi_G}(S_i, F) $. The $\otimes_K S_i $ doesn't really do anything: it just shows us $\Pi_G $ acts.
Nov 11, 2021 at 8:39 history answered wcb CC BY-SA 4.0