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Nov 10, 2021 at 22:30 vote accept Arshak Aivazian
Nov 10, 2021 at 21:58 answer added Jeremy Brazas timeline score: 4
Nov 10, 2021 at 20:37 history edited Arshak Aivazian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 10, 2021 at 20:36 comment added Arshak Aivazian @NoahSchweber Indeed, this is a typo, thanks.
Nov 10, 2021 at 17:32 comment added Noah Schweber @EschatumVerus I think you misunderstood my comment. In the question, you define the notion of essentially wide ("We say that $D\subset C$ is essentially wide if [...]") but you then use the phrase homotopically wide later on (e.g. "Is there a $D$ homotopically wide subclass [...]"), and indeed the word "essentially" never appears again. Do you really want to use both phrases? (And meanwhile you never use "substantially wide" except in your comment.)
Nov 10, 2021 at 13:06 comment added Will Sawin What about passing from $X$ to $X \times \mathbb R^3$ or something?
Nov 10, 2021 at 6:43 answer added Achim Krause timeline score: 1
Nov 10, 2021 at 5:54 comment added Arshak Aivazian @NoahSchweber By using "substantially wide" I refer to the concept of a substantially wide subcategory. If you think it was worth adding "homotopically" to make it clear what morphisms we are talking about, then I will add it now.
Nov 10, 2021 at 5:48 comment added Noah Schweber Should "essentially wide" be "homotopically wide"?
Nov 10, 2021 at 5:23 history edited Arshak Aivazian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 10, 2021 at 5:02 comment added Arshak Aivazian @WillSawin Indeed, thanks, but this is an insignificant problem in the sense of "let us pass to a homotopically equivalent space from this class of spaces". Now I will make changes to the question.
Nov 10, 2021 at 4:18 comment added Will Sawin Try a circle with a line sticking out at one point, with the base point on that line.
Nov 10, 2021 at 3:36 comment added Arshak Aivazian @RyanBudney Thank you
Nov 10, 2021 at 3:34 history edited Arshak Aivazian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 10, 2021 at 3:32 comment added Arshak Aivazian Oh, the next obvious counter-example is a bunch of two circles. In fact, I meant that any words (i.e., elements of a free group) from injective loops are allowed. Now the question is formulated correctly.
Nov 10, 2021 at 3:30 comment added Ryan Budney It's called the weak Whitney embedding theorem. Wikipedia has a page with references.
Nov 10, 2021 at 3:28 comment added Arshak Aivazian @skupers I'm interested arbitrary subsets of $\mathbb {R}^3$, not necessarily manifolds. Nevertheless, thanks, can you tell me where I can read about the fact you mentioned?
Nov 10, 2021 at 3:23 history edited Arshak Aivazian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 10, 2021 at 3:19 comment added skupers On the other hand, if $X$ is a manifold dimension at least $3$ you can make any loop embedded by general position. You can similarly make homotopies go through embeddings if the dimension is at least $4$.
Nov 10, 2021 at 3:19 comment added Arshak Aivazian @SimonHenry Really! It is necessary to extend the class of loops: this is the closure of the class of injective loops with respect to the exponentiation operation. I'll edit the question now, thanks.
Nov 10, 2021 at 3:12 comment added Simon Henry Isn't the answer obviously no with $X= S^1$ ? there are few (Homotopy class of) injective map $S^1 \to S^1$
Nov 10, 2021 at 2:58 history asked Arshak Aivazian CC BY-SA 4.0