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Nov 8, 2021 at 9:47 vote accept Roxana
Nov 7, 2021 at 8:59 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 15
Nov 6, 2021 at 14:55 history edited Roxana CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 5, 2021 at 20:31 comment added Roxana Dear @abx thank you for your comment.
Nov 5, 2021 at 20:20 comment added Roxana Dear @DavidESpeyer In the paper I am reading they define $J_C$ as an abelian variety isomorphic to $A_0(C)$ the group of $0$-cycles of degree zero on $C$ modulo rational equivalence, and the cohomology as something like de Rham cohomology.
Nov 5, 2021 at 16:57 comment added David E Speyer And welcome to MO!
Nov 5, 2021 at 16:57 comment added David E Speyer I was going to leave a much friendlier version of this comment and then a student came in. So, trying now: What background are you coming from here? Are you defining $J_C$ complex analytically as something like $H^0(C, \Omega^1)^{\vee}/H_1(C, \mathbb{Z})$, or are you defining it as something like the group of degree $0$ line bundles? Are you defining cohomology as something topological, or as something like de Rham cohomology?
Nov 5, 2021 at 16:33 review Close votes
Nov 10, 2021 at 3:04
Nov 5, 2021 at 16:15 comment added abx This is indeed very basic. $J_C$ is by definition $H^0(C,K_C)^*/H_1(C,\mathbb{Z})$, so $H_1(J_C,\mathbb{Z})$ is canonically isomorphic to $H_1(C,\mathbb{Z})$, hence $H^1(J_C,\mathbb{C})$ to $H^1(C,\mathbb{C})$.
Nov 5, 2021 at 16:03 history asked Roxana CC BY-SA 4.0