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Oct 29, 2021 at 9:48 comment added G. Ander The implicit function theorem does not apply when $\partial f / \partial y = 0$. But, as in the two examples I'm giving here, if I know that I'm looking for a strictly increasing "implicit function", then uniqueness still holds (provided $\partial f / \partial y$ is not flat). However, I'm showing it without resorting to differential equations, implicit differentiation or a variant of the implicit function theorem; So I would like to find a way to prove it using these tools (as my version of the proof does not generalize easily to higher dimension/more general problems).
Oct 29, 2021 at 9:31 comment added Dieter Kadelka For me its no clear what is your problem. A function $F \colon \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$, $F \in C^1$ is given. I think $n = 2$. You want to show exactly what?
Oct 29, 2021 at 8:43 history asked G. Ander CC BY-SA 4.0