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Oct 31, 2021 at 5:19 vote accept Nikita Safonkin
Oct 29, 2021 at 9:47 answer added Jamie Gabe timeline score: 5
Oct 29, 2021 at 9:40 comment added Nikita Safonkin @JamieGabe Thank you! I have edited the question.
Oct 29, 2021 at 9:30 history edited Nikita Safonkin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 29, 2021 at 9:21 comment added Jamie Gabe Do you mean that $t_1(b^\ast b) = t_2(b^\ast b)$ for all $b\in B$? Otherwise you might have a lot of elements $b\in B_+$ such that $t_i(b) = \infty$. If this is what you mean, I can provide a proof of the result.
S Oct 28, 2021 at 16:37 review First questions
Oct 28, 2021 at 16:47
S Oct 28, 2021 at 16:37 history asked Nikita Safonkin CC BY-SA 4.0