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Oct 28, 2021 at 22:47 vote accept riemanntensor
Oct 28, 2021 at 15:47 answer added Theo Johnson-Freyd timeline score: 8
Oct 28, 2021 at 8:44 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 27, 2021 at 20:18 comment added domenico fiorenza That is, if $V_\Sigma$ is the vector space (space of states) associated with the $(n-1)$-manifold $\Sigma$ by the first QFT and $W_\Sigma$ the one associated by the second QFT, you have a linear morphism $\varphi_\Sigma\colon V_\Sigma\to W_\Sigma$. If $M$ is an $n$-manifold with $\partial M =\Sigma$ then we have a vector (a state) $v_M\in V_M$ and a vector $w_M\in W_\Sigma$, and one has $\varphi_\Sigma(v_M)=w_M$; the morphism $\varphi_{\Sigma_1\sqcup \Sigma_2}$ is naturally identified with $\varphi_{\Sigma_1}\otimes \varphi_{\Sigma_2}$, etc.
Oct 27, 2021 at 19:10 comment added Fernando Muro Naively, if your QFTs are monoidal functors you can take monoidal natural transformations between them.
Oct 27, 2021 at 18:54 comment added riemanntensor The specific case of QFTs is what I'm interested in. I am aware that QFTs form a higher category, but I am unable to even understand what the 1-morphisms in the category of QFTs look like.
Oct 27, 2021 at 18:44 comment added Fernando Muro Is your trouble with natural transformations between monoidal functors in general or with the specific case of QFTs? Beware that you actually have a higher category of those.
S Oct 27, 2021 at 18:03 review First questions
Oct 27, 2021 at 18:04
S Oct 27, 2021 at 18:03 history asked riemanntensor CC BY-SA 4.0