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Oct 17, 2021 at 15:48 vote accept Ken.Wong
Oct 17, 2021 at 15:40 answer added Joseph Van Name timeline score: 3
Oct 17, 2021 at 12:09 comment added Joseph Van Name If $C(X)$ is generated by $f_{1},\dots,f_{n}:X\rightarrow\mathbb{C}$, then isn't $f_{1}\times\dots\times f_{n}:X\rightarrow\mathbb{C}^{n}$ your required embedding? And if $f_{1}\times\dots\times f_{n}:X\rightarrow\mathbb{C}^{n}$ is an embedding, then doesn't $f_{1},\dots,f_{n}$ generate $C(X)$ by the complex Stone-Weierstrass theorem?
Oct 17, 2021 at 9:23 history asked Ken.Wong CC BY-SA 4.0