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Oct 14, 2021 at 20:31 comment added G. Panel No, but I agree that treating first the same question replacing $\mathcal{C}^2$ by $\mathcal{C}^1$ and $f'',f_n''$ by $f',f_n'$ is natural.
Oct 14, 2021 at 17:46 comment added username Did you already answer that question with one less derivative?
Oct 14, 2021 at 15:00 history asked G. Panel CC BY-SA 4.0