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Oct 10, 2021 at 18:27 comment added Pinch Got it, thank you all so much!
Oct 10, 2021 at 18:19 comment added Mark Wildon Apply (1) replacing $k_x$ with $\hat{k}_x$ (legitimate since $\hat{k}$ and $k$ have the same properties) and $f$ with $k_x$.
Oct 10, 2021 at 18:18 comment added Pinch First of all, thanks for the quick answer! But sadly I still do not understand, why I can rewrite $\langle k_x, \hat{k}_x \rangle$ as $k_x(x)$ (and $\langle \hat{k}_x, k_x \rangle$ as $\hat{k}_x(x)$)...
Oct 10, 2021 at 18:11 vote accept Pinch
Oct 10, 2021 at 17:49 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
added 42 characters in body
Oct 10, 2021 at 17:43 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0