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Oct 1, 2021 at 18:01 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 17:52 comment added Anixx @CarloBeenakker I have added an alternative derivation.
Oct 1, 2021 at 17:51 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 16:03 comment added Anixx @CarloBeenakker actually, the integral diverges if you integrate the Hadamard finite part. If you integrate the generalized function, including $0^+$, the integral converges.
Oct 1, 2021 at 15:55 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 15:20 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 15:00 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 14:42 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 14:35 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 13:30 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 13:22 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 12:42 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 12:25 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 12:24 comment added Anixx @CarloBeenakker I have added the term that makes the integral finite. Thank you for pointing this out.
Oct 1, 2021 at 12:23 history undeleted Anixx
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Oct 1, 2021 at 12:18 history edited Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2021 at 12:09 history deleted Anixx via Vote
Oct 1, 2021 at 11:28 comment added Carlo Beenakker but the Laplace transform of $1/x^{3/2}$ diverges at $x=0$ (the $p>-1$ condition mentioned by the OP).
Oct 1, 2021 at 11:14 history answered Anixx CC BY-SA 4.0