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According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ \frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

More explanation, using the theory of divergent integrals.

The Fourier transform of $x^n$ is $2\pi i^{n}\delta ^{(n)}(s )$. This means that at $s=0$ we have

$\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^ndx=2\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

If the integral is taken from zero, we have half of that value:

$\int_{0}^\infty x^ndx=\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

But there is an equality of divergent integrals

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^n} dx=\frac1{(n-1)!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-2} dx$

it is based on the fact that the following Laplace-based transform preserves the area under the integral, defining the equivalence class of divergent integrals:

$\int_0^\infty f(x)dx=\int_0^\infty\mathcal{L}_t[t f(t)]\left(x\right)dx=\int_0^\infty\frac1x\mathcal{L}^{-1}_t[ f(t)]\left(x\right)dx$

So, we have:

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{n+1}} dx=\frac1{n!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-1} dx=\frac\pi{n!}i^{n-1}\delta ^{(n-1)}(0)$

For $n=3/2$, and adding coefficient $\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}$ to the both sides we get

$\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{5/2}} dx=\frac1{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}\int_0^\infty \sqrt{x} dx=\frac{\sqrt{i}\delta ^{(1/2)}(0)}{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}=-\frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)$$\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{5/2}} dx=\frac1{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}\int_0^\infty \sqrt{x} dx=\frac{\sqrt{i}\delta ^{(1/2)}(0)}{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}=-\frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(0)$

So to normalize our equation we should take this term with an opposite sign.

According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ \frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

More explanation, using the theory of divergent integrals.

The Fourier transform of $x^n$ is $2\pi i^{n}\delta ^{(n)}(s )$. This means that at $s=0$ we have

$\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^ndx=2\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

If the integral is taken from zero, we have half of that value:

$\int_{0}^\infty x^ndx=\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

But there is an equality of divergent integrals

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^n} dx=\frac1{(n-1)!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-2} dx$

it is based on the fact that the following Laplace-based transform preserves the area under the integral, defining the equivalence class of divergent integrals:

$\int_0^\infty f(x)dx=\int_0^\infty\mathcal{L}_t[t f(t)]\left(x\right)dx=\int_0^\infty\frac1x\mathcal{L}^{-1}_t[ f(t)]\left(x\right)dx$

So, we have:

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{n+1}} dx=\frac1{n!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-1} dx=\frac\pi{n!}i^{n-1}\delta ^{(n-1)}(0)$

For $n=3/2$, and adding coefficient $\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}$ to the both sides we get

$\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{5/2}} dx=\frac1{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}\int_0^\infty \sqrt{x} dx=\frac{\sqrt{i}\delta ^{(1/2)}(0)}{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}=-\frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)$

So to normalize our equation we should take this term with an opposite sign.

According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ \frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

More explanation, using the theory of divergent integrals.

The Fourier transform of $x^n$ is $2\pi i^{n}\delta ^{(n)}(s )$. This means that at $s=0$ we have

$\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^ndx=2\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

If the integral is taken from zero, we have half of that value:

$\int_{0}^\infty x^ndx=\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

But there is an equality of divergent integrals

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^n} dx=\frac1{(n-1)!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-2} dx$

it is based on the fact that the following Laplace-based transform preserves the area under the integral, defining the equivalence class of divergent integrals:

$\int_0^\infty f(x)dx=\int_0^\infty\mathcal{L}_t[t f(t)]\left(x\right)dx=\int_0^\infty\frac1x\mathcal{L}^{-1}_t[ f(t)]\left(x\right)dx$

So, we have:

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{n+1}} dx=\frac1{n!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-1} dx=\frac\pi{n!}i^{n-1}\delta ^{(n-1)}(0)$

For $n=3/2$, and adding coefficient $\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}$ to the both sides we get

$\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{5/2}} dx=\frac1{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}\int_0^\infty \sqrt{x} dx=\frac{\sqrt{i}\delta ^{(1/2)}(0)}{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}=-\frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(0)$

So to normalize our equation we should take this term with an opposite sign.

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Anixx
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According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$$\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ \sqrt{\frac{i}{\pi}}\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$$ \frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

More explanation, using the theory of divergent integrals.

The Fourier transform of $x^n$ is $2\pi i^{n}\delta ^{(n)}(s )$. This means that at $s=0$ we have

$\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^ndx=2\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

If the integral is taken from zero, we have half of that value:

$\int_{0}^\infty x^ndx=\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

But there is an equality of divergent integrals

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^n} dx=\frac1{(n-1)!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-2} dx$

it is based on the fact that the following Laplace-based transform preserves the area under the integral, defining the equivalence class of divergent integrals:

$\int_0^\infty f(x)dx=\int_0^\infty\mathcal{L}_t[t f(t)]\left(x\right)dx=\int_0^\infty\frac1x\mathcal{L}^{-1}_t[ f(t)]\left(x\right)dx$

So, we have:

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{n+1}} dx=\frac1{n!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-1} dx=\frac\pi{n!}i^{n-1}\delta ^{(n-1)}(0)$

For $n=3/2$, and adding coefficient $\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}$ to the both sides we get

$\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{5/2}} dx=\frac1{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}\int_0^\infty \sqrt{x} dx=\frac{\sqrt{i}\delta ^{(1/2)}(0)}{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}=-\frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)$

So to normalize our equation we should take this term with an opposite sign.

According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ \sqrt{\frac{i}{\pi}}\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ \frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{1}{\Gamma(-1/2)x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

More explanation, using the theory of divergent integrals.

The Fourier transform of $x^n$ is $2\pi i^{n}\delta ^{(n)}(s )$. This means that at $s=0$ we have

$\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^ndx=2\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

If the integral is taken from zero, we have half of that value:

$\int_{0}^\infty x^ndx=\pi i^n\delta ^{(n)}(0 )$.

But there is an equality of divergent integrals

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^n} dx=\frac1{(n-1)!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-2} dx$

it is based on the fact that the following Laplace-based transform preserves the area under the integral, defining the equivalence class of divergent integrals:

$\int_0^\infty f(x)dx=\int_0^\infty\mathcal{L}_t[t f(t)]\left(x\right)dx=\int_0^\infty\frac1x\mathcal{L}^{-1}_t[ f(t)]\left(x\right)dx$

So, we have:

$\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{n+1}} dx=\frac1{n!}\int_0^\infty x^{n-1} dx=\frac\pi{n!}i^{n-1}\delta ^{(n-1)}(0)$

For $n=3/2$, and adding coefficient $\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}$ to the both sides we get

$\frac{3/2}{\Gamma(-1/2)}\int_0^\infty \frac1{x^{5/2}} dx=\frac1{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}\int_0^\infty \sqrt{x} dx=\frac{\sqrt{i}\delta ^{(1/2)}(0)}{\Gamma(-1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}=-\frac{\sqrt{i}}2\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)$

So to normalize our equation we should take this term with an opposite sign.

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Anixx
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According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ -2i\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$$ \sqrt{\frac{i}{\pi}}\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ -2i\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

According to Wolfram Alpha, it is $\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$. This, of course, involves regularization, so to get the full answer, we have to subtract the divergent part so that its Laplace transform to converge.

So, the answer is $ \sqrt{\frac{i}{\pi}}\delta ^{(1/2)}(x)+\text{f.p.}\frac{-1}{2\sqrt{\pi}x^{3/2}}$, following Urs Graf's "Introduction to Hyperfunctions and Their Integral Transforms", page 36:

enter image description here

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