Timeline for Is set of the indices of c.e.sets that cover a productive set also productive one?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Dec 25, 2021 at 13:00 | vote | accept | XL _At_Here_There | ||
| Nov 12, 2021 at 3:02 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
| Oct 13, 2021 at 2:28 | answer | added | Peter Gerdes | timeline score: 1 | |
| Oct 2, 2021 at 22:58 | comment | added | XL _At_Here_There | @NoahSchweber Yes, this is what I ask about. I mean, for a P productive and $P=\bigcup e \in E$, We, we must have E also be productive? Is this a trivial question? | |
| S Oct 1, 2021 at 5:48 | history | suggested | markvs | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
fixed misprints
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| Oct 1, 2021 at 5:12 | comment | added | Noah Schweber | This is a bit unclear. Are you asking whether, for $P$ productive and $P=\bigcup_{e\in E}W_e$, we must have $E$ also be productive? (Note that there is not a unique way to cover a productive set by c.e. sets. Also, note that we can never have this $E$ be c.e.: a c.e. union of c.e. sets is c.e., and productive sets are never c.e.) | |
| Oct 1, 2021 at 0:56 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Oct 1, 2021 at 5:48 | |||||
| Oct 1, 2021 at 0:43 | history | asked | XL _At_Here_There | CC BY-SA 4.0 |