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joaopa
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In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin, one can find this statement (precisely at p. 215) with the comment "it is easy to see that...":

Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear formforms $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linearly independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$$$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{|L_i(\overline w)|}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{|\Delta|}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy. Can one have hints to prove that? Thanks in advance

In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin, one can find this statement (precisely at p. 215) with the comment "it is easy to see that...":

Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear form $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linearly independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy. Can one have hints to prove that? Thanks in advance

In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin, one can find this statement (precisely at p. 215) with the comment "it is easy to see that...":

Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear forms $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linearly independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{|L_i(\overline w)|}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{|\Delta|}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy. Can one have hints to prove that? Thanks in advance

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Daniele Tampieri
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In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin ( https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9783540614678Number Theory IV )from Parshin, one can find this statement (pageprecisely at p. 215) with the comment ''it is easy to see that...''"it is easy to see that...":

Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear form $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linearly independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy. Can one have hints to prove that? Thanks in advance

In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin ( https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9783540614678 ), one can find this (page 215) with the comment ''it is easy to see that...'':

Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear form $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linearly independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy. Can one have hints to prove that? Thanks in advance

In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin, one can find this statement (precisely at p. 215) with the comment "it is easy to see that...":

Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear form $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linearly independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy. Can one have hints to prove that? Thanks in advance

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YCor
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In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin ( https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9783540614678 ), one can find this (page 215) with the comment ''it is easy to see that...''. Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear form $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linealy independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.:

Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear form $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linearly independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy !!. Can one have hints to provesprove that? Thanks in adavceadvance

In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin ( https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9783540614678 ), one can find this (page 215) with the comment ''it is easy to see that...''. Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear form $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linealy independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy !!. Can one have hints to proves that? Thanks in adavce

In the book Number Theory IV from Parshin ( https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9783540614678 ), one can find this (page 215) with the comment ''it is easy to see that...'':

Let $a_{ij}$ ($1\le i,j\le m$) be complex numbers with $|a_{i,j}|\le H_i$ ($1\le j\le m$). One assumes that the linear form $L_i(\underline X)=\sum_{i=1}^ma_ix_i$ are linearly independent. Then, for any $\overline w=(w_1,\cdots,w_m)\in\mathbb C^m$, one has $$\sum_{i=1}^m\frac{L_i(\overline w)}{H_i}\ge c_1\frac{\Delta}{H_1\cdots H_m}$$ where $\Delta=\det(a_{i,j})$ and $c_1=\frac1{m!}\max_{1\le j\le m}|w_j|$.

Unfortunately, for me it is not easy. Can one have hints to prove that? Thanks in advance

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joaopa
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