Timeline for Why do mathematicians prefer one definition over the other when they both define the same concept?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 7, 2021 at 4:02 | history | edited | Wlod AA | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Second example
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| Sep 28, 2021 at 23:43 | history | edited | Wlod AA | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Word “proofs” was missing
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| Sep 28, 2021 at 23:38 | history | edited | Wlod AA | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
First Example
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| Sep 28, 2021 at 23:15 | comment | added | Wlod AA | What I have described seems ubiquitous. I'll still try to provide examples (just give me some time, please). The issue is a bit obscured by the fact that instead of actual definitions, there are constructions, often not equivalent, and then someone comes as Samuel Eilenberg and his partners who give justice to the apriori not-so-clear ideas. | |
| Sep 28, 2021 at 23:00 | history | edited | Wlod AA | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
English
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| Sep 28, 2021 at 13:58 | comment | added | Amir Asghari | Nice idea, but could you also provide one example please, two will do as well :) I understand that how unconsciously people might switch from one to the other, but consciously? | |
| Sep 28, 2021 at 5:34 | history | answered | Wlod AA | CC BY-SA 4.0 |